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submitted 1 month ago by NightOwl@lemmy.ca to c/worldnews@lemmy.ml
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[-] refalo@programming.dev -2 points 1 month ago

I'm not sure what your apprehension is... it's not like they are forcing it on Japan against their will...

[-] TheOubliette@lemmy.ml 7 points 1 month ago

The US demilitarized Japan after they were defeated in WWII, with the Japanese preferentially surrendering to the US to hope for a better deal. The US then established a bunch of bases there. The point of this was to (1) prevent Japan from remilitarizing as its own imperial power and (2) use it as a forward base against the USSR and China.

The US is still using Japan to do this and important segments of the Japanese ruling class are trying to remilitarize Japan itself, both coordinating against China.

Finally, Japan has questionable sovereignty. Japan's economic downtown in the 90s was "synthetic" in the sense that it was created by US-led fiscal policy and not any "natural" result of their economy. I'm sure much of its political class is aware of this. And they are still basically militarily occupied by the US given those *massive" bases, many of which are very unpopular with the locals. Just ask Okinawa.

And again, this is a plane doing a small toe dip on one route vs. long-range missiles designed to be able to carry nukes. Incredibly disproportionate.

[-] refalo@programming.dev -2 points 1 month ago

My understanding is that after the war, the US agreed to defend Japan. And Japan is still allowed to defend itself against others too. I don't understand how what you're saying is related at all.

[-] TheOubliette@lemmy.ml 8 points 1 month ago

The US occupied Japan. The agreement wasn't exactly one made by equals. It was the same kind of deal as the Marshall Plan.

Which parts of what I said don't seem related?

[-] refalo@programming.dev -3 points 1 month ago

The US occupied Japan

Only until 1952. Everything you're saying sounds like a strawman argument.

[-] reagansrottencorpse@lemmy.ml 7 points 1 month ago

Are you under the impression that we've left Japan?

[-] TheOubliette@lemmy.ml 4 points 1 month ago

Only until 1952

De jure, yes. But also what is your point? Do you think this contradicts anything I said?

Everything you're saying sounds like a strawman argument.

A straw man argument is where you pretend someone else is making an argument that they aren't because it is rhetorically easier to address.

At which point have I done that even once?

this post was submitted on 08 Sep 2024
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