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[-] GissaMittJobb@lemmy.ml 40 points 5 months ago
[-] marcos@lemmy.world 55 points 5 months ago

No, this is because the testing set can be derived from the training set.

Overfitting alone can't get you to 1.

[-] sevenapples@lemmygrad.ml 3 points 5 months ago

It can if you don't do a train-test split.

But even if you consider the training set only, having zero loss is definitely a bad sign.

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this post was submitted on 26 Mar 2024
377 points (96.5% liked)

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